• PugJesus@lemmy.worldOPM
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    30 days ago

    Explanation: Historians used to be extremely reluctant, due to lingering Victorian-era mores, to acknowledge GSMs in history. Nowadays the problem is much reduced, and historians are generally more open to acknowledging the GSM identity or possible identity of historical figures.

    The Roman Emperor Elagabalus is now generally considered, if a third of the stories repeated about them by contemporary histories are true (and while Elagabalus was unpopular, the stories are remarkably specific accusations to level against someone), to have been trans or NB.

    • htrayl@lemmy.world
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      30 days ago

      I would say they still are reluctant. Maybe less so. In modern conversatioms, there is a very subtle implication that acknowledging queerness is inappropriate unless very explicit - even then you will get comments like “they didn’t have the same understanding about orientation or gender identity”.

      In otherwords, there is still a strong undercurrent that straightness should be the default, rather than just one of the options.

      • Tar_Alcaran@sh.itjust.works
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        29 days ago

        even then you will get comments like “they didn’t have the same understanding about orientation or gender identity”.

        I mean, it IS true. If you asked someone from 1910 if they were queer, they wouldn’t understand you either, you’d have to launch into a very long explanation to cover the cultural baggage in that term, and how it doesn’t just mean “homosexual”.

        And then, even if they just finished enjoying male-male intercourse with their partner live-in friend, they would vehemently deny any such thing and be heavily offended.

      • cysgbi@lemmy.wtf
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        29 days ago

        Honestly, historians are just cagey about anything that can be argued about. Typically they wan’t to use language that is either verifiable or culturally specific (e.g. pederasty). One lecturer I know also emphasised that direct equivalency can be frankly problematic (e.g. lots of examples of Roman “homosexuality” is older men and younger boys). At the end of the day we can’t speak to identity in most cases, and that identity will be culturally situated. We can talk about actions. Can’t say if Julius Caesar was bisexual, can say he probably had sex with both men and women. Does sound like tiptoeing around to people used to saying “gay” not “men who have sex with men”.

        • cysgbi@lemmy.wtf
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          29 days ago

          That kinda language is common among both cisgendered straight and LGBTQ+ researchers btw.

      • Kusimulkku@lemm.ee
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        29 days ago

        But isn’t straightness the most common, which is why it’s a good bet

        • PugJesus@lemmy.worldOPM
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          29 days ago

          Straightness as defined in the modern day, not necessarily. For the first ~200 years or so of Roman Emperors, only ~4/18 would’ve been ‘straight’ as we would recognize it.

          (Claudius, definitely; Vespasian, probably; Antoninus Pius, probably; Lucius Verus, possibly. You can add Marcus Aurelius if you want, but there’s some speculation on his inclinations, if somewhat fringe)

          Augustus, Tiberius, and Caligula are all noted to have had male sexual favorites. Nero married men. Galba was noted, specifically, as liking older, ‘hard-bodied’ men. Otho took Nero’s castrated husband. Vitellius had male favorites. Titus was a party boy and total bicon. Domitian was noted to have a castrated male favorite. Nerva is suggested to have been gay. Trajan was overwhelmingly gay. Hadrian had the Senate deify his deceased boytoy. Commodus had male favorites.

            • PugJesus@lemmy.worldOPM
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              29 days ago

              I mean, unless one is thinking that the Emperors were drawn from some sort of Biologically Bisexual Elite™, it would probably be not dissimilar, in terms of attraction if not necessarily opportunity to sample all the boytoys one wishes, for random people.

              • Kusimulkku@lemm.ee
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                29 days ago

                I mean the elite often do act different to the common people and their behaviour was sometimes very scandalous, which is why it was so widely written about

                • PugJesus@lemmy.worldOPM
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                  29 days ago

                  Elite act differently from the common people generally for increased ability to act on their wishes. In a society where the elite is not a closed cultural caste, common people and elite generally share tastes, in broad terms, even if fashions and fads differ.

                  • Kusimulkku@lemm.ee
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                    29 days ago

                    It’s an interesting idea that the people back then would’ve been different to people now on their sexual preference generally. If being gay, bi or straight is biological then something would probably have had to change