That’s why I thought it was odd that he did not talk about capitalism and its relationship to colonialism. Since Marx stated in his letters to Engels that the English working class would never achieve liberation without decoupling itself from Irish exploitation.

Is there any particular reason that Marx did not mention potential reasons for the capitalist in the USA paying greater average wages compared to the British capitalist? Such as gathering labor aristocrat allies against the labor underclasses[slaves and certain foreigners]? Especially since this was published in 1865.