• plyth@feddit.org
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    1 day ago

    My argument is not about the transition of responsibility but the legal limit that Germany was occupied. No German could have made the decision of seceding land between 1945 and 1948.

    As a side note, in 1907 Germany must have been more like Britain or the EU. Has there been a German “us”?

    • Saleh@feddit.org
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      1 day ago

      For the period of occupation that is true, although i’d say that by committing the Holocaust Germany contributed significantly to the idea that a Jewish nation state would be needed for the safety of Jewish people.

      In regards to German identity, it is complicated to the point of absurdity. I think the fragileness and relative recentness of a German national identity is playing a big role in overcompensation through extreme nationalism.