clerics of the dark ages loved adding whore to ever female description

Holy shit they were based in 500 AD?

You actually fell for it, automod responses are absolutely dripping with irony

Well maybe he has preternatural powers that allowed him to project violent posts onto his subreddit

r/fuckluigimangione is definitely a parody sub. It might chance being the only one left after the bans

It still decreases the incentive though. They’ll let you die without having to pay a dime

About half of rape allegations reported to police are already false

It seems like this number varies from 1% to 70% depending on what measurements you take. Rape is nearly impossible to prove or disprove, as the action usually happens in private and even if there’s DNA evidence, you can just say it was consensual, so I’m not sure how you can get to the matter that any percent are true or false with any certainty.

Maybe the complainant said there was no rape after being intimidated, or deciding that the legal battle isn’t worth it?

Why not both?

People who have been raped – could be too intimidated, but that doesn’t speak for those who haven’t.

I know that the “false accusation” crowd is vastly overexaggerated, but if you HAD to report a rape to get access to an abortion when you needed one, it could actually cause motivation for it, too.

And then that circles back, people assuming that when you’re reporting a rape it might be a false accusation because you want an abortion.

And it really would be so easy for them to AT LEAST argue from the perspective of “Allow abortion for 10 year olds”

Hmm, ok. Let me retry.

The digits of pi are not proven to be uniform or randomly distributed according to any pattern.

Pi could have a point where it stops having 9’s at all.

If that’s the case, it would not contain all sequences that contain the digit 9, and could not contain all sequences.

While we can’t look at all the digits of Pi, we could consider that the uniform behavior of the digits in pi ends at some point, and wherever there would usually be a 9, the digit is instead a 1. This new number candidate for pi is infinite, doesn’t repeat and contains all the known properties of pi.

Therefore, it is possible that not any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers would appear somewhere in Pi.

I kind of get what you’re saying, but it’s just the wording is weird to me I guess. It feels like colloquially you would say “This person is responsible for the killing” to be equivalent to “This person committed the killing”, so I would wonder why anyone wouldn’t answer ‘yes’ the person is responsible.

I think that this confusing wording introduces bias.

The person who committed the killing has “a great deal” or “a moderate amount” of responsibility for the Dec. 4 shooting of Brian Thompson

Is this meant to be a control or something? Isn’t literally the person committing the killing responsible for the shooting… I don’t get how that’s not saying the same exact thing

It’s amazing how easily he stretched a 20 year to 15 year age gap to Matt Gaetz, who is like 40 years old.

Prove that said number isn’t pi.

Honestly don’t get why they’re still around and what they do.

Also not to mention, it influences your friends or family and the people you interact with. Unless you’re an antisocial hermit, you’re going to be affected one way or another

They could boost every single employee’s pay by $5000 annually and still make a billion dollars in profit.

Except for the corporate employees / managers, which get stock options that are much higher than $5,000 annually ofc

0000000000

It kind of does come across as pedantic – the real question is just that “Does pi contain all sequences”

But because of the way that it is phrased, in mathematics you do a lot of problems/phrasing proofs where you would be expected to follow along exactly in this pedantic manner

OK, fine. Imagine that in pi after the quadrillionth digit, all 1s are replaced with 9. It still holds

The question is

Since pi is infinite and non-repeating, would it mean…

Then the answer is mathematically, no. If X is infinite and non-repeating it doesn’t.

If a number is normal, infinite, and non-repeating, then yes.

To answer the real question “Does any finite sequence of non-repeating numbers appear somewhere in Pi?”

The answer depends on if Pi is normal or not, but not necessarily